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1. When the axial length of the
eyeball is changed by 1 mm then
the power changes by
a. 2 dioptres
b. 3 dioptres
c. 4 dioptres
d. 1 dioptres
2. A patient presented with a red
eye with complaints of pain
photophobia and blurring after
trauma to his eye with a
vegetable matter. On
examination the cornea there was
a dendritic ulcer. The corneal
scrapings were taken and
examined microscopy showed
macrophage like cells. The
corneal scrapings were cultured
over chocolate agar and blood
agar but there was no growth.
But on culturing over 5 non-
nutrient agar with an overlay of
E.coli there were plaque
formations. The likely etiological
agent is
a. Acanthameaba
b. Herpes simplex
c. Adeno virus
d. Candida
3. Horner’s syndrome is best
explained as having
a. Miosis and Exopthalmos
b. Miosis and ptosis
c. Mydriasis and
enophthalmos
d. Miosis and ptosis
4. In a lesion in the optic radiation
involving the Meyers loop causes
which of the following
a. Homonymous
heminaopia
b. Superior quadrantionopia
c. Central scotoma
d. Bilateral hemianopia
5. In a lesion in which of the
following would lead to
internuclear ophthalmoplegia
a. Lateral lemniscus
b. Medial longitudinal
fasciculus
c. Parapontine reticular
fibres
d. Occipital lobes
6. In a patient with multiple
bilateral nasal polyps with x ray
showing opacity in the Para nasal
sinuses .The treatment consists of
all of the following except
a. Antihistamines
b. Corticosteroids
c. Amphoterecin B
d. Epinephrine
7. An 18-year-old boy presented
with repeated epistaxis and there
was a mass arising from the
lateral wall of his nose extending
into the nasopharynx. It was
decided to operate him. All of the
following are true regarding his
management except
a. Requires adequate
amount of blood to be
transfused
b. A lateral rhinotomy
approach may be used
c. Transpalatal approach
used
d. Trans maxillary approach
8. Which is the best rinsing solution
that can be used in the extra
capsular cataract extraction
a. Ringer lactate
b. Normal saline
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c. Balanced salt solution
d. Balanced salt solution
with glutathione
9. The oldest cells in a lens are
present in
a. Anterior capsule
b. Posterior capsule
c. Nucleocortical junction
d. Nucleus
10. A patient presented with a 15
days history of proptosis in his
right eye .His vision was found
to be 6/12 in that eye and he
complained of pain on eye
movement. There was difficulty
in upward and downward gaze
movements. Ultrasound and CT
scans showed a cystic lesion with
hyperdense opacity within it
located in the superior oblique
muscle. The diagnosis is
a. Cysticercosis cellulosae
b. Orbital abscess
c. Hemangioma
d. Dermoid
11. Recurrent chalazion is
predisposed to develop
a. Basal cell carcinoma
b. Adenocarcinoma
c. Squamous cell carcinoma
d. Epidermoid carcinoma
12. In a patient hoarseness of voice
was found to be having
pachydermis larynges .All of the
following are true except
a. It is a hyperkeratotic
lesion present within the
anterior 2/3rd of the vocal
cords
b. It is not premalignant
c. Diagnosed is made by
biopsy
d. On microscopy it shows
acanthosis and
hyperkeratosis
13. In a patient presenting with well
defined rash with scales over the
elbows and the knees. Which of
the following simple bedside test
would help in coming to a
diagnosis
a. Tzank smear
b. Auspitz sign
c. Split skin smear
d. Examination under KoH
solution.
14. Treatment of pustular psoriasis is
a. Hydroxyurea
b. Retinoids
c. Thalidomide
d. Steroids
15. In a patient presenting with
nodulocystic lesions the
treatment would include
a. Retinoids
b. Antibiotics
c. Steroids
16. A woman presented with an itchy
lesion below her right breast. On
examination it was found to have
well formed ring scales. The
diagnosis is
a. Candida
b. Trichophyton rubrum
c. Lichen planus
d. Bacterial infection
17. Flourescein angiography is used
to identify lesions in all of the
following except
a. Retina
b. Iris
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c. Lens
d. Optic nerve head
18. In a patient presenting with
hemoptysis the x-ray was found
to be normal. The investigation
done to aid in diagnosis is.
a. Helical CT scan
b. High resolutions CT scan
c. Bronchoscopy
d. MRI
19. A patient suffering from HIV
came with history of difficulty in
breathing. The X ray showed the
parahilar region to be widened.
But there was no adenopathy or
effusion. The likely cause of his
problem is
a. Pneumocystis carinii
pneumonia
b. Kaposi’s sarcoma
c. Tuberculosis
d. CMV
20. In a patient with mitral stenosis
will show all of the following
findings on x-ray except
a. Raising up of the left
bronchus
b. Shadow in shadow
appearance
c. Kink in the esophagus in
barium swallow studies
d. Obliteration of
retrosternal shadow on
lateral x ray
21. In a patient with air embolism all
of the following are true except
a. TEE transesophageal
echo is the most
sensitive investigation
b. It should be measured
over a continous cycle
c. It can calculate the
volume of the air
d. It interferes with Doppler
readings when they are
used together
22. A 60-year man gives a 10-year
history that he suspects his
neighbours and he feels that
whenever he passes by they
sneeze and plan against behind
his back. He feels that his wife
has been replaced by a double
and calls police for help. He is
quite well groomed alert
occasionally consumes alcohol.
The likely diagnosis is
a. Paranoid personality
b. Paranoid schizophrenia
c. Alcoholic hallucinations
d. Dementia
23. A 66-year-old lady is brought in
by her 6 children saying that she
has gone senile. Six months after
her husbands death she has
become more religious spiritual
and gives lot money in donation.
She is occupied in too many
activities and sleeps less. She
now believes that she has a goal
to change the society. She does
not like being brought to the
hospital and is argumentative on
being questioned on her doings.
The diagnosis is
a. Manic excitement
b. Brief reaction
c. Dementia
d. Depression
24. A teacher complains that a 9-
year-old child does not pay
attention in the class gets
distracted very fast and also
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disturbs and distracts the other
students. The diagnosis is
a. Autism
b. Attention deficit
hyperkinetic disease
c. Conduct disorder
25. A patient is brought with a 6
months history of odd behaviour.
There is a history of a family
member having disappeared
some years back. He seems to be
talking to himself and sometimes
muttering to himself loudly. The
diagnosis
a. Depression
b. Schizophrenia
c. Paranoia
d. Mania
26. Regarding Temporo mandibular
joint least vascularity is seen in
which of the following
a. Anterior portion
b. Central part
c. Posterior part
d. Articular cartilage
27. Protonopia implies complete
abnormality in which of the
following colours
a. Red
b. Blue
c. Green
d. Yellow
28. When chorionic villous biopsy is
done before ten weeks it causes
which of the following adverse
effects
a. Fetomaternal
haemorrhage
b. Cardiac defects
c. Limb defects
d. Renal defects
29. In a patient with red degeneration
all of the following are true
except
a. It occurs as its outgrows
its blood supply
b. It presents with pain
abdomen and nausea
c. Surgery is required in
treatment
d. It occurs only during
pregnancy
30. The compliment is fixed best by
which of the following
immunoglobulins
a. IgG
b. IgM
c. IgA
d. IgD
31. Regarding the HMG CoA
reductase inhibitors all of the
following are true except
a. The CNS accumulation of
drugs Simvastatin and Lovastatin
is high and it is less for
Provastatin and Fluvastatin
b. Simvastatin is extensively
metabolised and Provastatin is least
c. Bioavailability is minimally
modified when Provastatin is
taken along with food
d. Fibrinogen levels are increased
by Provastatin
32. All of the following have
proximal myopathy except
a. Myotonic dystrophy
b. Spinomuscular atrophy
c. Polymyositis
d. Ducchene muscular
dystrophy
33. Skeletal maturation depends
most upon
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a. Growth hormone
b. Thyroxin
c. Testosterone and estrogen
ratio
d. Cortisol
34. Toxoplasmosis in the foetus can
be best confirmed by
a. IgG antibodies against
Toxoplasma in the
mother
b. IgM antibodies against
toxoplasma in the Foetus
c. IgG antibodies against
toxoplasma in the mother
d. IgG antibodies against
toxoplasma in the foetus
35. Which of the following branches
of External carotid artery is
arising from the medial side
a. Superior Thyroid
b. Ascending pharyngeal
c. Internal maxillary
d. Superior Lingual
36. In a patient with medial condyle
fracture with injury to a nerve
passing by leads to all of the
following except
a. Weakness of adduction of
fingers
b. Ulnar deviation and wrist
flexion affected
c. Total paralysis of 4th and
5th fingers
d. Sensory loss over
37. A patient rameshwar presented
with weakness of hand over a
past few months with atrophy of
the thenar eminence on
examination. Which of the
following nerves is implicated
a. Ulnar
b. Median
c. Radial
d. Axillary
38. Mental foramen is closely related
to which of the following
a. 2nd premolar
b. 1st molar
c. 1st molar maxillary
d. Canines of mandible
39. To give inferior alveolar nerve
block the nerve is approached
medial to pterygomandibular
raphe between the buccinator and
a. Temporalis
b. Internal pterigoid
c. Superior pharyngeal
constrictor
d. Middle pharyngeal
constrictor
40. Blood supply to the first two cms
of duodenum is from all of the
following except
a. Supradoudenal
b. Gastrodoudenal
c. Hepatic
d. Superior
pancreaticodoudenal
41. All of the following are
tributaries anatomising with
cavernous sinus except
a. Superficial middle
cerebral vein
b. Superior petrosal
c. Inferior ophthalmic
d. Sphenoparietal veins
42. In a mutation if valine is replaced
by which of the following would
not result in any change in the
amino acid
a. Proline
b. Glycine
c. Aspartic acid
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d. Leucine
43. A mutation in the codon which
causes a change in the amino
acid being coded is referred to as
a. Missense mutation
b. Recombination
c. Somatic mutation
d. Mitogenesis
44. In a patient with starvation for 72
hours which of the following
would be seen
a. Increased ketosis due to
breakdown of fats
b. Increased
gluconeogenesis by
muscle protein
breakdown
c. Increased Glycogenolysis
d. Increased glycosis
45. Which of the following
membranes would be having
highest protein content
a. Inner mitochondrial
membrane
b. Outer mitochondrial
membrane
c. Plasma membrane
d. Myelin sheath
46. The presence of lone pair on the
oxygen in water molecule results
in
a. Makes water apolar
solvent
b. Slightly positive charge
c. Slightly negative charge
d. Covalent bond in ice
47. Defect in folding proteins would
result in a clinical disease in
which of the following
a. Myopia
b. Hypothyroidism
c. Migraine
d. Kuru
48. When deoxyhemoglobin gets
converted into oxyhemoglobin
the changes seen would include
a. Haemoglobin becomes
more acidic by accepting
protons
b. Increased binding of 23
DPG
c. Increased binding to
glutathione
d. Increased formation of
formation of Carbamino
compounds
49. In alkaptonuria there is increased
pigmentation in all of the
following except
a. Eyes
b. Nose
c. Ear
d. Articular cartilage
50. The transfer of iron from sertoli
cells to adluminal germ cells is
by which of the following
a. Transferrin
b. FSH
c. Androgen binding protein
d. Sulfated glycoprotien
51. All of the following cross cell
membrane easily except
a. Glucose
b. Glucose 6 phosphate
c. Nitric oxide
d. Carbon monoxide
52. Viscosity in synovial fluid
depends upon
a. Chondoroitin sulphate
b. Hyaluronic acid
c. Keratin sulphate
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53. All of the following are
extracellular proteins except
a. Laminin
b. Integrin
c. Collagen
d. Elastin
54. Anomeric c-atom is seen in
which of the following
a. Glycine
b. Alanine
c. Valine
d. Leucine
55. Homoestatic mechanisms in a
body system depends upon all of
the following except
a. Value of controlled
variable is compared to
the reference value
b. Value of controlled
variable oscillates near a
set point
c. Positive feedback
stabilizes system
d. Values revolve around
the mean
56. Which of the following stimulus
equal strength is least likely to
cause a nerve stimulation
57. On ascending to a height of 6500
Mts 347 mm Hg. What is the
PO2 of inspired moist air
a. 53
b. 63
c. 73
d. 83
58. In a study dye ABC is used to
measure cardiac output and blood
volume. The dye is replaced with
a new dye XYZ. A rival
pharmaceutical company informs
that the dye XYZ diffuses more
rapidly out of the capillaries.
This would affect the study by
a. Normal cardiac output
altered blood volume
estimation
b. Altered cardiac output
and blood volume
c. Normal cardiac ouput and
blood volume
d. Altered cardiac output
and normal blood volume
59. A substance is present in
concentration of 2mg in the
afferent arteries and the veins
contain 0 mgs and excreted with
a concentration of 2mgs in urine.
True about the substance is
a. It is freely filtered in GFR
b. Secreted in cortical
nephron
c. Impermeable in loop of
henle
d. Absorbed in PCT
60. In a chronic smoker with mild
hemoptysis He also gave a
history of hypertension and
obesity. Lab data showed raised
ACTH levels which were not
suppressed by dexamethazone.
The cause for the Cushings
syndrome in the patient is
a. Pituitary adenoma
b. Ectopic ACTH
c.
61. In a patient with BPH all of the
following are used except
a. Flutamide
b. Finasteride
c. Testosterone
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d. DES
62. Acute lung injury includes all of
the following except
a. Aspiration
b. Toxic gas inhalation
c. Cardiopulmonary bypass
with heart lung machine
d. Lung contusion
63. All of the following are seen in a
patient with cystic fibrosis except
a. Metabolic acidosis
b. Steatorrhoea
c. Hypochloremia
d. Reccurent pneumonias
64. Which of the following is most
commonly associated with
uvietis
a. Still ‘s disease
b. Pauciarticular juvenile
rheumatoid arthritis
c. Polyarticular juvenile
rheumatoid arthritis
d. Rheumatoid arthritis
65. A lady with 2 children presented
with a history of ammenorrhea
and galactorrhea over the past 12
months. The likely diagnosis is
a. Pregnancy
b. Pituitary tumour
c. Sheehans syndrome
d. Hypothyroidism
66. The most common cause of
Addison disease is
a. Tuberculosis
b. Autoimmune adrenelitis
c. Meningococcal
septicaemia
d. Malignancy
67. In an accident there was rupture
of the pituitary stalk. This would
lead to all of the following except
a. Hyperprolactenimia
b. Diabetes Insipidus
c. Hypothyroidism
d. Diabetes Mellitus
68. In a patient with NIDDM which
of the following is seen
a. Ketosis commonly occurs
on stopping treatment
b. There are increased levels
of insulin in blood
c. Pancreatic beta cells stop
producing insulin
d. Hypercholestrolemia
never occurs
69. Necrotizing papilitis is seen in all
of the following except
a. Salicylate poisoning
b. Renal vascular
thrombosis
c. PNH
d. Diabetes Mellitus
70. A chronic alcoholic presented to
the casualty with altered
sensorium. His blood sugar level
was normal. Which of the
following is the treatment to be
given
a. IV dextrose 5
b. IV dextrose 50
c. Inj Vitamin B1
d. IV Normal saline
71. In the treatment of syphilis which
of the following is the best mode
of follow up to ensure that the
patient is responding to treatment
a. FTA-Abs
b. TPHA
c. TPI
d. VDRL
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72. If the mother develops chicken
pox during which part of the
pregnancy will it lead to highest
chance of neonatal infection
a. 12-16 weeks
b. Last 5 days of pregnancy
c. 24-32 weeks
d. 8-12 weeks
73. To say twin discordance the
difference in the two twins
should be
a. 25 with the larger twin
as index
b. 15 with the smaller
twin as index
c. 25 with the smaller
twin as index
d. 15 with the larger twin
as index
74. If the mother is infected with
hepatitis B virus and is HbsAG
positive at 32 weeks of
pregnancy. To prevent neonatal
infection which of the following
needs to be given to the newborn
a. Hepatitis B vaccine
b. Human immunoglobulins
c. Hepatitis B vaccine +
Immunoglobulins
d. Immunoglobulins
followed by vaccine 1
month later if HbsAG
negative
75. A full term baby exclusively
breast fed at the end of 1 week
was passing golden yellow soft
stools and was found to be
having adequate hydration and
with no abnormality on systemic
examination. The weight of the
neonate at the end of 1 week is
just the same as it was at birth
the paediatrician should now
advise
a. Start top feeds
b. Oral solutions along with
breast-feeding
c. Investigate for late lactic
acidosis
d. Reassure the mother that
there is nothing abnormal
76. A 2-year child with Vitamin D
resistant rickets was found to
have the following lab data on
investigation. Ca2+ 9mgs/dl
phosphate 2.4 mgs/dl alkaline
phosphate 1041 IU and
immunocytochemical studies
showed parathormone to be 59
units. The probable diagnosis is
a. Hypophosphetemic
rickets
b. Vitamin D dependant
rickets
c. Hyperparathyroidim
d. Distal renal tubular
acidosis
77. Skeletal maturation depends
most upon
a. Thyroxin
b. Growth hormone
c. Testosterone/Estrogen
ratio
d. Cortisone
78. All of the following are ductus
dependent congenital heart
diseases except
a. Transposition of great
vessels with intact septum
b. Truncus arteriosis
c. Obliterated aortic arch
syndrome
d. Hypo plastic left ventricle
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79. Transient tachypnea of new born
TTN is commonly seen in
which of the following situations
a. Full term requiring
ceasarian section
b. Term requiring forceps
c. Term requiring venthouse
d. Premature with vaginal
delivery
80. In rentrolental fibroplasias the
most important association has
been with
a. Intrauterine infection
b. Low birth weight
c. Meconium aspiration
d. Prolonged labour
81. If the mother has been exposed to
Dethyl stibesterol during
pregnancy. All of the following
features may be seen the child
after birth except
a. Vaginal adenosis
b. Malformation of the
vagina and uterus
c. Microglandular
hyperplasia
d. Clear cell carcinoma
82. In which of the following
sterilization procedures is best
reversible
a. Pomeroys technique
b. Irwinne’s technique
c. Laproscopic placement of
sialatic bands
d. Laproscopic placement of
Hulka clips
83. A neonate with severe anaemia
and hepatosplenomegaly died
after birth. Which of the
following is the cause for his
anaemia
a. Alpha thallessima
b. Beta thallessemia
c. Hereditary spherocytosis
d. Sickle cell anaemia
84. Which of the following is
responsible for maintaining the
structure of the RBC membrane
a. Spectrin
b. Fibrin
c. Integrin
85. Pap smear would be useful in all
of the following conditions
except
a. Gonococcal infection
b. Human papilloma virus
c. Trychomoniasis
d. Inflammatory changes
86. On examination of cervix after
staining with acetic acid would
help to identify all the following
showing stain except
a. Squamous metaplasia
b. Carcinoma in situ
c. Cervical dysplasia
d. Cervical polyp
87. On performing per vaginal
examination the fingers could
feel the anterior fontanelle and
the superior orbital ridges. The
presentation is
a. Vertex
b. Brow
c. Deflexed
d. Extended
88. In excitation contraction
coupling in smooth muscle true
is
a. The presence of
intracellular calcium is
essential to cause
contraction
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b. Presence of troponin is
essential
c. Phosphorylation of actin
occurs
d. Increased calcium in
sarcoplasmic reticulum
causes sustained
contraction
89. All of the following are present
in mucosa of small intestine
except
a. Paneth cells
b. Goblet cells
c. Neck mucosa cells
d. Stem cells
90. In study to measure BP 2
students Sameer and Rahul are
conducting a study on a dog.
Sameer measure BP using a
mercury sphygmanometer on the
right femoral artery and Rajesh
measures using a pressure
transducer and pulse tracing on
the left femoral artery. Both get a
value of 100 mm Hg. After
giving Inj of 30micrograms of
epinephrine they measure the BP
again. Sameer obtains a value of
130 mm Hg and rahul 120 mm
Hg. Discrepancy in values is
explained by
a. Right femoral artery is
more sensitive to
epinephrine
b. Falsely high values at low
pressures in pulse
tracings
c. Falsely low values at high
pressures in pulse
tracings
d. Diastole period is
affected by the
ventricular filling
91. In a patient CVP and Intra
arterial pressure were monitored.
During the monitoring the patient
suddenly developed an attack of
supra ventricular Tachycardia.
Changes seen in the pressure
readings due to the effect of
Tachycardia are
a. Increased CVP and
decreased BP
b. Increased CVP and BP
c. Decreased CVP and
increased BP
d. Decreased CVP and BP
92. A cardiologist asks for
measurement of
electromechanical systole QS2
and left ventricular ejection time
LVET and pre-ejection period.
The technician doing the study
informs the cardiologist that the
carotid transducer measuring
pressure is not functioning.
Which of the following cannot be
measured
a. QS2
b. LVET and PEP
c. QS2 and LVET
d. QS2 and PEP
93. Which of the following is
involved is in metastasis cascade
of
a. Fibronectin
b. E-Cadherin
c. Type IV collagenase
d. Tyrosine kinase
94. Gastrointestinal stromal
malignancy arises from which of
the following
a. Smooth muscle
b. Interstial cells
c. Nerve cells of cajal
d. Vascular Endothelium
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95. In tumour lysis syndrome all of
the following are seen except
a. Hyperkalemia
b. Hypercalcemia
c. Hyperphosphatemia
d. Hypernatremia
96. Which of the following is true
regarding vascularity of lung
a. Hypoxia causes
vasodilatation
b. Distended capillaries in
lower lobe
c. Increased perfusion of
apical lobe
d. Pulmonary resistance is
half of the systemic
vascular resistance
97. Foreign body aspiration in supine
position causes which of the
following parts of the commonly
to be affected
a. Apical lobe of right lung
b. Posterobasal segment of
Left lung
c. Apical part of right lower
lobe
d. Apical left lobe
98. Regarding hydatid cyst of lung
which of the following is true
a. Always associated with
cyst in the liver
b. Calcification is common
c. More common in lower
lobe
d. Never ruptures
99. Myopathy is caused by all of the
following except
a. Oral Prednisolone
b. IV hydrocortisone
c. Chloroquine
d. Chloramphenicol
100. Pancreatitis is caused by
all of the following except
a. Methyl Dopa
b. Corticosteroid
c. Furesemide
d. Somatostatin
101. Gingival hyperplasia
hirsutism osteomalacia is caused
by which of the following drugs
a. Carbamazipine
b. Sodium Valproate
c. Phenytoin
d. Furesimide
102. Enantiomeric drugs are
used in racemic mixtures which
have different pharmacokinetic
and pharmacodynamic properties
and also vary in the
stereoisomeric responses to the
receptors. Which of the
following drugs is a racemic
mixture
a. Verapamil
b. Dilantin
c. Lithuim
d. Digoxin
103. All are used in acute
asthma except
a. Ipratropium
b. Salbutamol
c. Montelukast
d. Hydrocortizone
104. Chlorodiazepoxide used
in elderly patients is more likely
to cause toxicity due to all of the
following reasons except
a. Increased receptor
sensitivity
b. Decreased plasma
clearance
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c. Decreased volume of
distribution
d. Decreased metabolism
105. All of the following are
true about beta blockers except
a. Atenolol has a longer half
life then Metoprolol
b. Propranolol potentiates
hypoglycemia in diabetics
c. Labetalol is a non
selective Beta blocker
d. Carvidelol is selective
Beta-1 blocker and also
has vasoconstrictor
activity due to alpha 1
adrenergic blocking
action
106. All of the following are
true about Metformin except
a. Alcohol potenties
increased lactic acidosis
along with it
b. It does not cause release
of insulin
c. It inhibits Glycogenolysis
and increases peripheral
utilization of glucose
d. Causes severe
hypoglycaemia both in
diabetics and non
diabetics
107. All of the following drugs
precipitate hypertensive crisis in
phaeochromocytoma except
a. Propranolol
b. Saralasin
c. Phenoxybenzamine
108. Which of the following
actions are associated with action
on umu receptors
a. Miosis
b. Hypothermia
c. Bradycardia
d. Diuresis
109. Which of the following
can be used safely in a carcinoma
patient with intractable pain
a. Inj Pethidine
b. Oral morphine
c. Inj ibuprofen
d. Inj Ketamine
110. Which of the following is
specifically avoided in a patient
with head trauma
a. Diazepam
b. Morphine
c. Phenobarbitone
d. Inj Ketamine
111. Antigen presenting cells
are all of the following except
a. Astrocytes
b. Endothelial cells
c. Epithelial cells
d. Langerhans cells
112. Child presented with
fever for 2 days altered
sensorium and purpuric rash. BP
was 90/60 mm Hg. Which of the
following is indicated in the
treatment
a. I/V artesunate
b. I/V Quinine
c. I/V Penicillin
d. Chloroquine
113. A child was suffering
through nephritic syndrome and
had hypoalbuminemia All the
following drugs half life is
altered due to high protein
binding except
a. Diazepam
b. Morphine
c. Tolbutamide
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114. A patient presented with
pain abdomen ataxia
constipation. Peripheral blood
smear examination showed
basophilic stippling of RBC’s.
He is suffering from poisoning
due to
a. Iron
b. Lead
c. Cadmium
d. Arsenic
115. A patient was brought
with history of pyrexia
contracted pupils Hyptotension
cyanosis progressing to coma is
suspected to be suffering from
poisoning due to
a. Cannabis
b. Dhatura
c. Phenobarbitone
d. Diphenhydramine
116. A bullet which fails to
leave the gun on firing but is
ejected out with the subsequent
shot is
a. Dum dum bullet
b. Tandem bullet
c. Rocketed bullet
d. Rickochet bullet
117. Sexual asphyxia is
associated with which of the
following perversions
a. Voyeurism
b. Masochism
c. Sadism
d. Fetishism
118. Hysteroscopy is useful in
all of the following except
a. Uterine didelphis
b. Infertility
c. Still births
d. Vaginal bleeding
119. All of the following are
used in post coital contraception
except
a. Danazol
b. Levonorgestrol
c. Ethinyl estradiol
d. Misoprostol
120. In the management of
post partum haemorrhage all of
the following can be used except
a. Ergometrine
b. Carboprost
c. Misoprostol
d. Mefiprestone
121. A child was found to
have pauci immune crescentic
glomerulonephritis. The
treatment to be given in this child
is
a. Methylprednisolone
b. Prednisolone +
cylcophosphamide
c. Immunoglobulins
d. Cylcophosphamide
122. Post menopausal estrogen
therapy causes increase in which
of the following
a. Cholesterol
b. VLDL
c. LDL
d. Triglycerides
123. FSH acts on which of the
following cells primarily
a. Stromal cells
b. Theca cells
c. Granulosa cells
d. Fibrin cells
124. A child presents with
hypotonia and hyporeflexia.
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During its intrauterine period it
had been seen that there was
polyhydramnios and there was
decreased foetal movements. The
probable diagnosis is
a. Congenital myasthenia
b. Spinal muscular atrophy
c. Muscular dystrophy
d. Congenital Myotonia
125. Most common cause of
pseudohermophroditism in a
female is
a. Ovarian dysgenesis
b. Congenital adrenal
hyperplasia
c. Turners syndrome
d. PCOD
126. A newborn developed
encephalitis and fever but there
was no rash. Likely etiological
agent is
a. Meningococci
b. Herpes type 2
c. Streptococcal infection
d. Herpes type 1 infection
127. Bad prognostic indicator
in ALL is
a. Age greater then 1 year
b. Leukocyte count 50000
c. Hypoploidy
d. Female sex
128. The most common site of
admantinoma of the long bones
is
a. Fibula
b. Tibia
c. Ulna
d. Femur
129. Which of the following
sites is chondroblastoma of the
femur likely to occur
a. Metaphysis
b. Epiphysis
c. Diaphysis
d. Medullary cavity
130. An 8-year boy presented
with pain in the arm. X ray of the
humerus demonstrated an
expansile lesion in the
metaphysis with break in the
cortex. The likely diagnosis is
a. Chondroblastoma
b. Unicameral bone cyst
c. Aneurysmal bone cyst
d. Osteoclastoma
131. A torsional injury in the
leg would most commonly cause
lesion of
a. Meniscus
b. Collateral ligament
c. Enchondral fracture
d. Anterior cruciate
ligament tear
132. Twisting force in the leg
would result in injury to all of the
following except
a. Anterior cruciate
ligament
b. Capsular tear
c. Fibular collateral
ligament
d. Meniscal tear
133. In RNTPC the schedule
for sputum examination for
category I patients is
a. 23 and 5 months
b. 24 and 6 months
c. 13 and 5 months
d. 25 and 7 months
134. In a plague epidemic all
of the following are done except
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a. Tetracycline prophylaxis
to be given
b. Isolation of contacts
c. Susceptible to be
vaccinated
d. Surveillance
135. In a study on comparison
of a common drugNSAID and a
rare drug Dypirone causing
disease the attributableAR and
relative risk RR were
calculated. It will be found that
the
a. NSAIDS will have
greater AR and RR as
compared to Dypirone
b. NSAIDS will have lesser
RR but greater AR
c. There will be no
difference between the
findings
d. NSAIDS will have lesser
AR and RR
136. True morbidity in a
population can be calculated by
a. Sentinel surveillance
b. Active surveillance
c. Monitoring
d. Passive surveillance
137. Which of the following is
best in evaluating the leprosy
eradication programme
a. Detection of new cases
b. The ratio of the
multibacillary to the
paucibacillary cases
c. The ratio of disability as
compared to the new
cases
d. Number of cases
lepromin positive
138. In a negatively skewed
curve
a. The mean is less then the
median
b. The mean is greater then
the mode
c. The mean is equal to
median
d. The mean and the mode
are equal to 0
139. In a Chloroquine resistant
zone the presumptive treatment
of malaria to be given is
a. Chloroquine +primaquine
45mg
b. Chloroquine +
pyremethamine
c. Sulphalene 1000mgs
d. Sulphadoxine +
pyremethamine
140. The drug having most
rapid action on leprosy is
a. Dapsone
b. Rifampicin
c. Clofazamine
d. Corticosteroids
141. In a school of 100
students 1 of them developed
measles on jan1st. Subsequently
35 children developed measles.
Three on 3rd Jan. And the others
2 weeks later. The secondary
attack rate of measles is
a. 33.5
b. 36.2
c. 35
d. 37.5
142. All of the following are
associated with the use of DMPA
except
a. Cyclic bleeding
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b. Change in quantity and
quality of breast milk
c. Cyclic bleeding altered
d. Increased reproductive
tract infection
143. Danazol is used in the
treatment of
a. Breast cysts
b. Cyclic mastalgia
c. Acyclyic mastalgia
d. Fibrous tumour
144. The period between
primary and secondary case is
known as
a. Generation time
b. Serial interval
c. Incubation period
d. Multiplying time
145. Regarding poliomyelitis
all of the following are true
except
a. Type I is associated with
major epidemic
b. Type I is responsible for
vaccine associated
poliomyelitis
c. It is difficult to eradicate
d. Type I is given in higher
quantity as compared to
Type2
146. A patient presented with
stridor which he developed after
an attack of upper respiratory
tract infection. On examination
he was found to have a 3mm
glottic chink .All of the following
are used in the management
except
a. Tracheostomy
b. External
arrhetenoidopexy
c. Teflon injection
d. Cordectomy
147. Normal anion gap
metabolic acidosis is seen in
which of the following
conditions
a. Renal failure
b. Diabetic ketoacidosis
c. Diarrhoea
d. Lactic acidosis
148. A 7-year child gave
history fever for which she was
treated with paracetamol
following which the fever
subsided. Later she developed
seizures and altered sensorium.
The urine examination revealed
oxalate crystals on microscopy.
Blood anion and osmolality gap
were increased .The diagnosis is
a. Paracetamol poisoning
b. Dithelene glycol
c. Renal tubular acidosis
149. Chondrocalcinosis is seen
in which of the following
conditions
a. Hypervitaminosis D
b. Hypoparathyroidism
c. Oochronosis
d. Rickets
150. Endogenous polypeptide
decreasing serum calcium levels
is
a. Calcitonin
b. Calcitriol
c. Parathormone
151. ST elevation is seen in all
of the following conditions
except
a. Constrictive pericarditis
b. Ventricular aneurysm
c. Coronary artery spasm
d. MI
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152. Which of the following
physical signs is seen in a patient
with severe aortic stenosis
a. Holosystolic murmur
b. Diastolic rumble
c. Opening snap
d. Delayed upstroke of
carotid
153. In a patient with
myocardial infarction the
valvular lesion commonly seen is
a. Mitral regurgitation
b. Aortic regurgitation
c. Aortic stenosis
d. Septal defect
154. A patient had an antero
inferior myocardial infarction
and was in shock. The reason for
the patient being in shock is
a. Infarction causing septal
defect
b. Right ventricular
infarction
c. Decreased ejection
fraction from left
ventricle
d. Mitral regurgitation
155. In a patient vaccinated
with Hepatitis B vaccine the
serology would reveal presence
of which of the following in his
serum
a. Anti IgM HBcAg
b. Anti HbsAG
c. Anti IgG HBcAg
d. Anti HbeAg
156. In a patient with
compensated liver cirrhosis
presented with history of variceal
bleed. The treatment of choice in
this patient is
a. Endoscopic sclerotherapy
b. Liver transplantation
c. TIPS Trans jugular
intrahepatic portal shunt
d. Propranolol
157. A patient presented with
headache and flushing. He has a
family history of his relative
having died of a thyroid tumour.
The investigation that would be
required for this patient would be
a. Measurement of 5 HIAA
b. Measurement of
catecholeamines
c. Intravenous pyelography
d. Chest x ray
158. A patient had undergone
a renal transplantation 2 months
back and now presented with
difficulty breathing. X-ray
showed bilateral diffuse Interstial
pneumonia. The probable
etiologic agent would be
a. CMV
b. Herpes virus
c. Ebstein Barr virus
d. Varicella
159. In a mycetoma foot
infection there are multiple
discharging sinuses. The granules
in the discharge are
a. Pus cells
b. Fungal organisms
c. Inflammatory cells
d. Sulphur granules
160. Lateral aberrant thyroid
implies
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a. Congenital thyroid
abnormality
b. Metastatic foci from
primary in thyroid
c. Lingual thyroid
161. Parathyroid most
commonly involves which of the
following sites
a. Superior parathyroid lobe
b. Inferior parathyroid lobe
c. In the mediastinum
d. In the thyroid
162. Features to differentiate
parathyroid adenoma from
hyperplasia would include which
of the following
a. Presence of excess chief
cells
b. Infiltration of capsule
c. Identifying hyperplasia
involving all 4 glands at
surgey in parathyroid
hyperplasia
d. High levels of
parathormone
163. Asbestosis of the lung is
associated with a all of the
following except
a. Progression of lesion
even after stopping
exposure to asbestos
b. Nodular lesions involving
upper lobe
c. Asbestos bodies in
sputum
d. Mesothelioma
164. Actinic keratosis
predisposes to which of the
following lesions commonly
a. Basal cell carcinoma
b. Squamous cell carcinoma
c. Melanoma
d. Freckles
165. All of the following are
true regarding warthins tumour
except
a. More common in females
b. 10 are bilateral
c. Commonly involve the
parotid glands
d. They arise from the
epithelial and the
lymphoid cells
166. Which of the following
mutations in a tumour suppressor
agent causes breast carcinoma
a. P43
b. P53
c. P73
d. P83
167. A female patient
presented with a firm mass of
22 cms in the upper outer
quadrant of the breast. She gives
a family history of ovarian
carcinoma .The investigation that
needs to be done to assess for
mutation in
a. BRCA2
b. Her2/Neu gene
c. P53
d. C-myc gene
168. For comparison grading
of pain the scale used is
a. Face’s scale
b. Visual chart
c. CHEOPES
d. Numerical charts
169. Phelps sign is seen in
a. Glomus jugulare
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b. Vestibular shwanoma
c. Menniers disease
170. Citelli’s angle is
a. CP angle
b. Dural sinus angle
c. Solid angle
d. Part of Mac Evans
triangle
171. A child with cervical
Ependymoma receives
radiotherapy for his treatment.
On follow-up he has been found
to gain a lot of weight. The cause
for his weight gain is
a. Steroid induced obesity
b. Hypothalamic lesion
c. Hypothyroidism
d. Pan hypopitiutarism
172. In a DNA the coding
region reads 5-CGT-3.This
would code in the RNA as
a. 5-UAG-3
b. 5-ACG-3
c. 3-GCA-5
d. 3-ACG-3
173. A 10 year boy presented
with polyuria polydypsia
Laboratory data showed in meq
Na 154 K 4.5 serum
osmolality 295 Bicarbonate 22
meq. Blood urea was 50 and
specific gravity of urine 1.005.
Diagnosis is
a. Diabetes Insipidus
b. Renal tubular acidosis
c. Recurrent UTI’s
d. Barters syndrome
174. A lady presented with
bilateral nodular lesions on shins.
She was also found to have
bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy
on chest X-ray. Mantoux test
reveals induration of 5 mms.
Skin biopsy would reveal
a. Non caeseating
Granuloma
b. Vasculitis
c. Caeseating Granuloma
d. Malignant cells
175. In a patient with
ascending paralysis there is
subsequently respiratory muscle
involvement. CSF examination
showed albuminocytological
dissociation. Treatment to be
given is
a. Oral Prednisolone
b. IV methyl Prednisolone
c. IV immunoglobulins
d. Cyclosporin
176. In a patient presenting
with a swelling of the thyroid
the radionuclide scan showed a
cold nodule and the ultrasound
showed a non cystic solid mass.
The management of this patient
would be
a. Lobectomy
b. Hemithyroidectomy
c. Eltroxin
d. Radio Iodine therapy
177. A patient presenting with
jaundice the HIDA scan would
be most useful for which of the
following
a. Biliary atresia
b. Bile duct carcinoma
c. Cholelitihiasis
d. Benign biliary disease
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178. Insulinoma is most
commonly located in which part
of the pancreas
a. Head
b. Body
c. Tail
d. Can be located at head
neck or body equally
distributed
179. In the synthesis of fatty
acids the energy is supplied by
a. NAD
b. NADPH
c. FAD
d. GTP
180. In a patient with frontal
lobe abscess pigment released on
exposure to UV rays showed red
fluorescence. The organism
implicated is
a. Bacteroids
b. Peptostreptococci
c. Streptococci
d. Provetella
181. A patient operated for
thyroid surgery for a thyroid
swelling later in the evening
developed difficulty in breathing.
There was swelling in the neck.
The immediate management
would be
a. IV calcium gluconate
b. Open the wound sutures
in the ward
c. Epinephrine inj
d. Tracheostomy
182. Which of the following
mechanisms is important in
staphylococcal enterotoxin
causing vomiting
a. Increased activation of
camp
b. Stimulation of vagal
fibres
c. Release of IL-4 cytokine
d. Increased cGMP
183. The diagnosis of rota
virus is made by
a. Demonstration of
Antibody in stool
b. Demonstration of antigen
in stool
c. Direct visualization
d. Stool culture
184. Toxoplasmosis infection
in the foetus can be best
diagnosed by
a. IgM antibody against
toxoplasma in foetus
b. IgG antibodies against
toxoplasma in foetus
c. IgM antibodies in mother
d. IgG antibodies in mother
185. True about V Cholera is
a. Pathogenecity of 0139
V.Cholera is due to the
presence of the O antigen
in it
b. One attack of V cholera
gives life long immunity
c. Affects adults and
children with equal
propensity in non
endemic regions
d. V.Cholera survives in the
carriers in the inter
epidemic period
186. Which of the following is
associated with hypersensitive
pneumonitis
a. Asbestosis
b. Bysinosis
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c. Berylliosis
d. Silicosis
187. Dr. Trehan was
accidentally exposed by a needle
stick injury while taking sample
of a patient who was HIV
positive .The prophylaxis to be
given is
a. Zidovudine+Lamuvudine
for 4 weeks
b. Zidovudine+Stamuvudine
for 4 weeks
c. Ziduvudine+Lamuvudine
+Nevirapine for 4 weeks
d. Ziduvudine +Lamuvudine
+Indinavir for 4 weeks
188. Egg shell calcification is
characteristically seen in
a. Silicosis
b. Sarcoidosis
c. Asbestosis
d. Beryliosis
189. A patient presenting with
polyuria pain abdomen nausea
altered sensorium was found to
have bronchogenic carcinoma
.The electrolyte abnormality seen
in him would be
a. Hypocalcemia
b. Hypercalcemia
c. Hypokalemia
d. Hyperkalemia
190. A patient presented with a
swelling in his right foot with
multiple discharging sinuses. The
lesion did not respond to
antibiotics. The likely etiological
agent would be
a. Actino-madura
b. Nocardia
c. Sporothrix
d. Madurella mycetoma
191. In Video assisted
thoracoscopic surgery for better
vision the space in the operative
field is created by
a. Co2 insufflation
b. Collapse of ipsilateral
lung
c. Self retaining retractor
d. Rib spacing
192. Which of the following
malignancies would spread to
cervical lymph nodes more
commonly
a. Nasopharyngeal
carcinoma
b. Ca Base of tongue
c. Glottic Ca
d. Transglottic carcinoma
193. A patient presented with a
1 by 1.5 cms growth on the
lateral border of the tongue. The
treatment indicated in
management of this patient is
a. Laser ablation
b. External beam
radiotherapy
c. Interstitial Brach therapy
d. Chemotherapy and
Radiotherapy
194. A patient presented with a
3.5 cms size lymph node
enlargement which was hard and
present in the submandibular
region. Examination of the head
and neck did not yield any lesion.
The next investigation to be done
in this patient is
a. Triple endoscopy
b. Supra vital oral mucosal
staining
c. Chest X ray
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d. Laryngoscopy
195. A patient with solitary
pulmonary nodule. The best
investigation to come to a
diagnosis would be
a. MRI
b. CT scan
c. Ultrasound
d. Imaging guided FNAC
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