Cardiology Quiz 4 Review

Cardiology Quiz 4 Review : 

Cardiology Quiz 4 Review Pathophysiology & Management of the Cardiac Patient

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1. Immediate treatment for a patient with an acute myocardial infarction involves:   A) elevating the patient's legs 6 to 12 inches. B) reducing myocardial oxygen demand. C) giving oxygen via nonrebreathing mask. D) administering up to 3 doses of nitroglycerin.

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2. What is the MOST correct sequence of treatment for a patient with a suspected acute myocardial infarction?   Oxygen, aspirin, nitroglycerin, morphine B) Oxygen, nitroglycerin, aspirin, morphine C) Aspirin, nitroglycerin, oxygen, morphine D) Morphine, oxygen, aspirin, nitroglycerin

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3. A conscious and alert patient with chest pressure and a room air oxygen saturation of 98% can be given oxygen at:   6 to 8 L/min via face mask. B) 1 to 2 L/min via nasal cannula. C) 4 to 6 L/min via nasal cannula. D) 12 to 15 L/min via nonrebreathing mask.

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4. When administering aspirin to a patient with an acute coronary syndrome, you should:   first check to make sure the patient is not overtly hypertensive. B) administer half the usual dose if the patient has a history of stroke. C) have him or her chew and swallow 160 to 325 mg of baby aspirin. D) give up to 325 mg of enteric-coated aspirin for the patient to swallow.

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5. Which of the following situations would contraindicate the administration of nitroglycerin?   Hypersensitivity to salicylates B) Systolic BP less than 90 mm Hg C) Levitra use within the last 72 hours D) Use of Plavix within the last 12 hours

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6. The appropriate initial dose of morphine sulfate is:   0.5 mg/kg B) 1 to 2 mg C) 2 to 3 mg D) 2 to 4 mg

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7. Which of the following medications would be the MOST acceptable alternative to morphine for analgesia in patients with an acute coronary syndrome?   Versed B) Fentanyl C) Diazepam D) Ibuprofen

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8. Patients experiencing a right ventricular infarction:   may present with hypotension. B) should not be given baby aspirin. C) often require higher doses of morphine. D) usually have anterior myocardial damage.

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9. When monitoring a patient's cardiac rhythm, it is MOST important to remember that:   a heart rate below 60 beats per minute must be treated immediately. B) many patients with acute myocardial infarction experience asystole. C) the ECG does not provide data regarding the patient's cardiac output. D) the presence of a QRS complex correlates with the patient's pulse.

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10. Which of the following interventions should be performed en route to the hospital during a lengthy transport of a patient with a suspected myocardial infarction?   Supplemental oxygen B) Aspirin administration C) IV therapy and analgesia D) 12-lead electrocardiography

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11. The MOST immediate forms of reperfusion therapy for an injured myocardium are:   high-dose aspirin and high-flow oxygen. B) fibrinolytics and placement of a coronary stent. C) angioplasty and coronary artery bypass grafting. D) high-flow oxygen and an infusion of nitroglycerin.

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12. The MOST significant risk associated with the use of fibrinolytic therapy is:   reocclusion. B) coagulation. C) anaphylaxis. D) hemorrhage.

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13. Fibrinolytic medications are beneficial to certain patients with an acute myocardial infarction because they:   decrease circulating platelets and thin the blood. B) convert plasminogen to plasmin and destroy a clot. C) destroy a clot by releasing fibrin into the bloodstream. D) break down the plasmin concentration inside a blood clot.

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14. Percutaneous coronary interventions (PCI) involve:   recanalizing a blocked coronary artery by passing a balloon or stent through a catheter via a peripheral artery. B) passing a 2-mm catheter through the femoral artery and administering a fibrinolytic agent through the catheter. C) using a large vein from one of the lower extremities to reroute blood flow past an occluded coronary artery. D) passing a guide wire through one of the external jugular veins to directly visualize an occluded coronary artery.

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15. In a patient with left heart failure and pulmonary edema:   the right atrium and ventricle pump against lower pressures, resulting in the systemic pooling of venous blood. B) diffusely collapsed alveoli cause blood from the right side of the heart to bypass the alveoli and return to the left side of the heart. C) increased pressure in the left atrium and pulmonary veins forces serum out of the pulmonary capillaries and into the alveoli. D) an acute myocardial infarction or chronic hypertension causes the left ventricle to pump against decreased afterload, resulting in hypoperfusion.

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16. Common signs of left-sided heart failure include all of the following, EXCEPT:   confusion. B) tachycardia. C) hypotension. D) hypertension.

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17. In contrast to a patient with asthma, a patient with left-sided heart failure:   presents with a dry, nonproductive cough and diffuse wheezing in all lung fields. B) experiences acute weight gain and takes medications such as digoxin and a diuretic. C) presents with a hyperinflated chest, use of accessory muscles, and expiratory wheezing. D) is typically a younger patient with a history of a recent upper respiratory infection.

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18. In addition to supplemental oxygen, treatment of a patient with left-sided heart failure includes:   a saline lock, a selective beta-2 adrenergic medication, and bicarbonate. B) an IV of normal saline, a 20 mL/kg fluid bolus, and a diuretic medication. C) a saline lock, fentanyl, and intubation facilitated by pharmacologic agents. D) an IV of normal saline to keep the vein open, nitroglycerin, and morphine.

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19. What physiologic effect occurs within the first 5 to 10 minutes after administering furosemide (Lasix)?   Increased preload B) Peripheral venous pooling C) Excretion of water by the kidneys

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20. The MOST common cause of right-sided heart failure is:   left-sided heart failure. B) pulmonary hypotension. C) acute pulmonary embolism. D) long-standing emphysema.