logging in or signing up CTTG quiz August 2011 with answers jakey39 Download Post to : URL : Related Presentations : Share Add to Flag Embed Email Send to Blogs and Networks Add to Channel Uploaded from authorPOINT lite Insert YouTube videos in PowerPont slides with aS Desktop Copy embed code: (To copy code, click on the text box) Embed: URL: Thumbnail: WordPress Embed Customize Embed The presentation is successfully added In Your Favorites. Views: 118 Category: Science & Tech.. License: All Rights Reserved Like it (0) Dislike it (0) Added: August 27, 2011 This Presentation is Public Favorites: 0 Presentation Description This is the quiz with answers for the Victorian CT Users Grp meeting, on Saturday 27th Aug. The quiz was written by Ms Christine Vanderley. Comments Posting comment... Premium member Presentation Transcript VICTORIAN CTTG QUIZ August 2011 Compiled by Christine Vanderley: VICTORIAN CTTG QUIZ August 2011 Compiled by Christine Vanderley50 Questions- 25 seconds each: 50 Questions- 25 seconds each Please write your names on the answer sheet Write A B C D E F ( not lower case) The winner announced at the end of the day Quiz available on web site later www.usingct.orgQ1. Which of these imaging modalities has the best spatial resolution?: Q1. Which of these imaging modalities has the best spatial resolution? Mammography Plain film MRI CT DSA Fluoroscopy Nuclear MedicineQ2. Which CT imaging parameter affects contrast resolution the most?: Q2. Which CT imaging parameter affects contrast resolution the most? kVp Rotation time mA Pitch FOV Q3. To improve spatial resolution you could: Q3. To improve spatial resolution you could Increase slice acquisition thickness Increase FOV Decrease Pitch Decrease FOV Reduce Noise Q4. What is the most common CT image processing technique used today for routine scanning today?: Q4. What is the most common CT image processing technique used today for routine scanning today? Fourier transform Back projection Filtered Back projection Iterative least squares technique Q5. Beam Hardening artefact is caused by?: Q5. Beam Hardening artefact is caused by? High attenuating objects in the scan field Bad patient positioning Bad calibration or faulty hardware Dense objects outside the scan field Insufficient data sampling Q6. Slice width broadening occurs when?: Q6. Slice width broadening occurs when? The Pitch factor is less than 1 The pitch factor is greater than 1 The table fee is equal to the slice width acquisition The patient diameter is greater than the scanner gantry diameter Q7. The pixel size in CT is equal to ?: Q7. The pixel size in CT is equal to ? FOV – matrix size FOV matrix size Matrix Size FOV FOV + matrix size Q8. The relationship between CT numbers and attenuation coefficients is referred to as the : Q8. The relationship between CT numbers and attenuation coefficients is referred to as the Linearity Cross field uniformity Precision Dynamic change Q9 Which of the following is not a source of noise in CT ?: Q9 Which of the following is not a source of noise in CT ? Focal spot size Slice thickness Algorhythm Object size Q10. The radiation beam produced by an X-Ray tube designed for CT is not a : Q10 . The radiation beam produced by an X-Ray tube designed for CT is not a Heterogeneous beam Homogenous beam Polychromatic beam Polyenergeric beam Q11. According to ARPANSA , the average background radiation dose is Australia is: Q11. According to ARPANSA , the average background radiation dose is Australia is 2-3 mGy 2-3 Sv 2-3 mSv 20-30 mSv Q12. NATA has suggested an suitable dose for CT Heads performed in Australia, what is it: Q12. NATA has suggested an suitable dose for CT Heads performed in Australia, what is it 20mSv 1mSv 500DLP 1050 DLP +/-10% Q13 To calculate the effective dose from a CT scan you need to know which factors: Q13 To calculate the effective dose from a CT scan you need to know which factors Total mAs, body region Body region, kVp, mAs total, length of scan in centimetres CTDIvol(w), total mAs Total mAs/ centimetres of scan DL P , body region Q14. Which of these factors does not contribute to contrast induced nephropathy( according to RANZCR): Q14. Which of these factors does not contribute to contrast induced nephropathy( according to RANZCR) Cancer Age Diabetes Liver disease Vascular disease Kidney disease Q15 Non Ionic iodinated intravenous contrast media has an osmolarity of between: Q15 Non Ionic iodinated intravenous contrast media has an osmolarity of between 290-2000 290-650 29-200 1000-1500 Q16 . Which of these techniques increases the risk of CIN: Q16 . Which of these techniques increases the risk of CIN Reduce volume of IVCM when possible Fast patients for 6 hours Use Iso osmolar contrast media Use Ipo osmolar contrast media Use Non ionic contrast media Q17. An Ivor – Lewis procedure involves which organs : Q17. An Ivor – Lewis procedure involves which organs Liver, gall bladder Gall bladder ,pancreas Oesophagus, stomach Descending colon, sigmoid colon Q18. A Whipples procedure is a surgical technique for which disease: Q18. A Whipples procedure is a surgical technique for which disease Cancer of the oesophagus Prostate cancer Cholycystitis Carcinoma of the head of the pancreas Q19. Which of these is considered a contra indication to iodinated IVCM: Q19. Which of these is considered a contra indication to iodinated IVCM An eGFR of below 40 A Creatinine of 40 A previous IVCM reaction of hives Allergy to topical Iodine An allergy to seafood Q20. The arrow points to what low density midline structure: Q20. The arrow points to what low density midline structure Pineal gland Septum Pellucidum Aqueduct of Sylvius Third ventricle Sagittal Sinus Q21. This streaking is most likely caused be: Q21. This streaking is most likely caused be Beam hardening Bad detectors Bad calibration Patient motion Q22. What is the most likely description of the abnormality : Q22. What is the most likely description of the abnormality Stroke or infarct Intracerebral haemorrhage Tumour T rauma Q23. The large area od decreased density lies in which region?: Q23. The large area od decreased density lies in which region? Frontal Parietal Temporal Occipital Q24 What is the first branch off the aorta below the diaphragm?: Q24 What is the first branch off the aorta below the diaphragm? Coeliac Axis Right renal Artery Superior Mesenteric artery Gastric artery Splenic artery Q25. The arrowed structure on the right of this scan is: Q25. The arrowed structure on the right of this scan is Caecum Descending colon Sigmoid colon Transverse colon Q26. Which cardiac valve is this?: Q26. Which cardiac valve is this? Mitral Aortic Bicuspid Pulmonary Q27. The large white lesion indicated by arrow is a : Q27. The large white lesion indicated by arrow is a Sun arachnoid haemorrhage Sub dural haematoma Extra dural haemorrhage Contusion Q28 . Which bone is this?: Q28 . Which bone is this? Scaphoid Hamate Trapezoid lunate Q29 Which bone is fractured?: Q29 Which bone is fractured? Occipital bone Temporal bone Parietal bone Petrous bone Q30 What is the diagnosis?: Q30 What is the diagnosis? Aortic aneurysm Thymus mass Pulmonary embolus Mediastinal mass Q31. What is the likely diagnosis for this bladder mass in an elderly male?: Q31. What is the likely diagnosis for this bladder mass in an elderly male? Transitional cell carcinoma Renal stone Renal cell carcinoma Blood clot Q32 This anterior wall lesion is 40HU and appeared suddenly. What is the most likely diagnosis? ps the patient is on Warfarin: Q32 This anterior wall lesion is 40HU and appeared suddenly. What is the most likely diagnosis? ps the patient is on Warfarin Lipoma Hernia Haematoma A bscess Q33. What is this CSF space called?: Q33 . What is this CSF space called? Mega Cisterna magna Pons Cerebellar cistern Internal occipital protuberance Q34. What is this structure: Q34. What is this structure Liver Spleen Stomach heart Q35. What is the likely cause for this mass?: Q35. What is the likely cause for this mass? Bowel tumour Retroperitoneal bleed Psoas bleed/ abscess Hydro ureter Q36. This appearance is typical for?: Q36. This appearance is typical for? Lymphoma of the liver Cavernous haemangioma Cholycystia Poly cystic ovary disease Q37. this appearance is typical for a ?: Q37. this appearance is typical for a ? Right MCA aneurysm bleed Pontine haemorrhage Left ACA rupture Cerebral Trauma Q38. This liver appearance is of a benign condition. What is it: Q38. This liver appearance is of a benign condition. What is it Patchy fatty liver infiltration Patchy liver regeneration Hepatitis Hepatoma Q39 The area of decreased density is a recent CVA. Where is ?: Q39 The area of decreased density is a recent CVA. Where is ? Thalamus Head of caudate nucleus, globus pallidus Insula Lentiform nucleus Q40. This patient has a common anatomical variant, What is it?: Q40. This patient has a common anatomical variant, What is it? Cavum septum Vergae Cavum Septum Pelllucidum Holoproencephaly Agenesis of the corpus callosum Q41 This linear mark in this C-Spine is : Q41 This linear mark in this C-Spine is Normal Disc space Old fracture New fracture Superior articular process Q42. Which sinus is this?: Q42. Which sinus is this? Sphenoid Ethmoid Frontal maxillary Q43. this skull disease is?: Q43. this skull disease is? Hyperostosis frontalis internus Osseos dysplasia Fibrous dysplasia Paget's Q44. The kidney abnormality is typical for?: Q44. The kidney abnormality is typical for? Horseshoe kidney L obar dysmorphism Cross fused ectopia Renal hypertrophy Q45. This bone extension is the: Q45. This bone extension is the Sphenoidal wing Frontal bone Zygomatic arch Odontoid peg Crista Gali Q46 This benign tumour arising from the Dura is: Q46 This benign tumour arising from the Dura is Acoustic neuroma Glioma Ependymoma Meningioma Q47. This pelvic mass which contains hair, teeth and fat is a: Q47. This pelvic mass which contains hair, teeth and fat is a Dermoid Pleomorphic cyst Teratoma Hydaform mole Q48 . The two dots in the foramen magnum are?: Q48 . The two dots in the foramen magnum are? Carotid arteries Vertebral arteries Jugular veins Basilar arteries Q49. Which bone is the base of the “Ice cream cone”: Q49. Which bone is the base of the “Ice cream cone” Malleus Stapes Incus cochlear Q50. What is this abnormality?: Q50. What is this abnormality? Disc lesion- lateral recess Disc lesion – broad based bulge Disc lesion-exit foramen Hypertrophy of ligament flavum: The END Remember – write your name on the sheet to participate in winnings and door prizes You do not have the permission to view this presentation. In order to view it, please contact the author of the presentation.
CTTG quiz August 2011 with answers jakey39 Download Post to : URL : Related Presentations : Share Add to Flag Embed Email Send to Blogs and Networks Add to Channel Uploaded from authorPOINT lite Insert YouTube videos in PowerPont slides with aS Desktop Copy embed code: (To copy code, click on the text box) Embed: URL: Thumbnail: WordPress Embed Customize Embed The presentation is successfully added In Your Favorites. Views: 118 Category: Science & Tech.. License: All Rights Reserved Like it (0) Dislike it (0) Added: August 27, 2011 This Presentation is Public Favorites: 0 Presentation Description This is the quiz with answers for the Victorian CT Users Grp meeting, on Saturday 27th Aug. The quiz was written by Ms Christine Vanderley. Comments Posting comment... Premium member Presentation Transcript VICTORIAN CTTG QUIZ August 2011 Compiled by Christine Vanderley: VICTORIAN CTTG QUIZ August 2011 Compiled by Christine Vanderley50 Questions- 25 seconds each: 50 Questions- 25 seconds each Please write your names on the answer sheet Write A B C D E F ( not lower case) The winner announced at the end of the day Quiz available on web site later www.usingct.orgQ1. Which of these imaging modalities has the best spatial resolution?: Q1. Which of these imaging modalities has the best spatial resolution? Mammography Plain film MRI CT DSA Fluoroscopy Nuclear MedicineQ2. Which CT imaging parameter affects contrast resolution the most?: Q2. Which CT imaging parameter affects contrast resolution the most? kVp Rotation time mA Pitch FOV Q3. To improve spatial resolution you could: Q3. To improve spatial resolution you could Increase slice acquisition thickness Increase FOV Decrease Pitch Decrease FOV Reduce Noise Q4. What is the most common CT image processing technique used today for routine scanning today?: Q4. What is the most common CT image processing technique used today for routine scanning today? Fourier transform Back projection Filtered Back projection Iterative least squares technique Q5. Beam Hardening artefact is caused by?: Q5. Beam Hardening artefact is caused by? High attenuating objects in the scan field Bad patient positioning Bad calibration or faulty hardware Dense objects outside the scan field Insufficient data sampling Q6. Slice width broadening occurs when?: Q6. Slice width broadening occurs when? The Pitch factor is less than 1 The pitch factor is greater than 1 The table fee is equal to the slice width acquisition The patient diameter is greater than the scanner gantry diameter Q7. The pixel size in CT is equal to ?: Q7. The pixel size in CT is equal to ? FOV – matrix size FOV matrix size Matrix Size FOV FOV + matrix size Q8. The relationship between CT numbers and attenuation coefficients is referred to as the : Q8. The relationship between CT numbers and attenuation coefficients is referred to as the Linearity Cross field uniformity Precision Dynamic change Q9 Which of the following is not a source of noise in CT ?: Q9 Which of the following is not a source of noise in CT ? Focal spot size Slice thickness Algorhythm Object size Q10. The radiation beam produced by an X-Ray tube designed for CT is not a : Q10 . The radiation beam produced by an X-Ray tube designed for CT is not a Heterogeneous beam Homogenous beam Polychromatic beam Polyenergeric beam Q11. According to ARPANSA , the average background radiation dose is Australia is: Q11. According to ARPANSA , the average background radiation dose is Australia is 2-3 mGy 2-3 Sv 2-3 mSv 20-30 mSv Q12. NATA has suggested an suitable dose for CT Heads performed in Australia, what is it: Q12. NATA has suggested an suitable dose for CT Heads performed in Australia, what is it 20mSv 1mSv 500DLP 1050 DLP +/-10% Q13 To calculate the effective dose from a CT scan you need to know which factors: Q13 To calculate the effective dose from a CT scan you need to know which factors Total mAs, body region Body region, kVp, mAs total, length of scan in centimetres CTDIvol(w), total mAs Total mAs/ centimetres of scan DL P , body region Q14. Which of these factors does not contribute to contrast induced nephropathy( according to RANZCR): Q14. Which of these factors does not contribute to contrast induced nephropathy( according to RANZCR) Cancer Age Diabetes Liver disease Vascular disease Kidney disease Q15 Non Ionic iodinated intravenous contrast media has an osmolarity of between: Q15 Non Ionic iodinated intravenous contrast media has an osmolarity of between 290-2000 290-650 29-200 1000-1500 Q16 . Which of these techniques increases the risk of CIN: Q16 . Which of these techniques increases the risk of CIN Reduce volume of IVCM when possible Fast patients for 6 hours Use Iso osmolar contrast media Use Ipo osmolar contrast media Use Non ionic contrast media Q17. An Ivor – Lewis procedure involves which organs : Q17. An Ivor – Lewis procedure involves which organs Liver, gall bladder Gall bladder ,pancreas Oesophagus, stomach Descending colon, sigmoid colon Q18. A Whipples procedure is a surgical technique for which disease: Q18. A Whipples procedure is a surgical technique for which disease Cancer of the oesophagus Prostate cancer Cholycystitis Carcinoma of the head of the pancreas Q19. Which of these is considered a contra indication to iodinated IVCM: Q19. Which of these is considered a contra indication to iodinated IVCM An eGFR of below 40 A Creatinine of 40 A previous IVCM reaction of hives Allergy to topical Iodine An allergy to seafood Q20. The arrow points to what low density midline structure: Q20. The arrow points to what low density midline structure Pineal gland Septum Pellucidum Aqueduct of Sylvius Third ventricle Sagittal Sinus Q21. This streaking is most likely caused be: Q21. This streaking is most likely caused be Beam hardening Bad detectors Bad calibration Patient motion Q22. What is the most likely description of the abnormality : Q22. What is the most likely description of the abnormality Stroke or infarct Intracerebral haemorrhage Tumour T rauma Q23. The large area od decreased density lies in which region?: Q23. The large area od decreased density lies in which region? Frontal Parietal Temporal Occipital Q24 What is the first branch off the aorta below the diaphragm?: Q24 What is the first branch off the aorta below the diaphragm? Coeliac Axis Right renal Artery Superior Mesenteric artery Gastric artery Splenic artery Q25. The arrowed structure on the right of this scan is: Q25. The arrowed structure on the right of this scan is Caecum Descending colon Sigmoid colon Transverse colon Q26. Which cardiac valve is this?: Q26. Which cardiac valve is this? Mitral Aortic Bicuspid Pulmonary Q27. The large white lesion indicated by arrow is a : Q27. The large white lesion indicated by arrow is a Sun arachnoid haemorrhage Sub dural haematoma Extra dural haemorrhage Contusion Q28 . Which bone is this?: Q28 . Which bone is this? Scaphoid Hamate Trapezoid lunate Q29 Which bone is fractured?: Q29 Which bone is fractured? Occipital bone Temporal bone Parietal bone Petrous bone Q30 What is the diagnosis?: Q30 What is the diagnosis? Aortic aneurysm Thymus mass Pulmonary embolus Mediastinal mass Q31. What is the likely diagnosis for this bladder mass in an elderly male?: Q31. What is the likely diagnosis for this bladder mass in an elderly male? Transitional cell carcinoma Renal stone Renal cell carcinoma Blood clot Q32 This anterior wall lesion is 40HU and appeared suddenly. What is the most likely diagnosis? ps the patient is on Warfarin: Q32 This anterior wall lesion is 40HU and appeared suddenly. What is the most likely diagnosis? ps the patient is on Warfarin Lipoma Hernia Haematoma A bscess Q33. What is this CSF space called?: Q33 . What is this CSF space called? Mega Cisterna magna Pons Cerebellar cistern Internal occipital protuberance Q34. What is this structure: Q34. What is this structure Liver Spleen Stomach heart Q35. What is the likely cause for this mass?: Q35. What is the likely cause for this mass? Bowel tumour Retroperitoneal bleed Psoas bleed/ abscess Hydro ureter Q36. This appearance is typical for?: Q36. This appearance is typical for? Lymphoma of the liver Cavernous haemangioma Cholycystia Poly cystic ovary disease Q37. this appearance is typical for a ?: Q37. this appearance is typical for a ? Right MCA aneurysm bleed Pontine haemorrhage Left ACA rupture Cerebral Trauma Q38. This liver appearance is of a benign condition. What is it: Q38. This liver appearance is of a benign condition. What is it Patchy fatty liver infiltration Patchy liver regeneration Hepatitis Hepatoma Q39 The area of decreased density is a recent CVA. Where is ?: Q39 The area of decreased density is a recent CVA. Where is ? Thalamus Head of caudate nucleus, globus pallidus Insula Lentiform nucleus Q40. This patient has a common anatomical variant, What is it?: Q40. This patient has a common anatomical variant, What is it? Cavum septum Vergae Cavum Septum Pelllucidum Holoproencephaly Agenesis of the corpus callosum Q41 This linear mark in this C-Spine is : Q41 This linear mark in this C-Spine is Normal Disc space Old fracture New fracture Superior articular process Q42. Which sinus is this?: Q42. Which sinus is this? Sphenoid Ethmoid Frontal maxillary Q43. this skull disease is?: Q43. this skull disease is? Hyperostosis frontalis internus Osseos dysplasia Fibrous dysplasia Paget's Q44. The kidney abnormality is typical for?: Q44. The kidney abnormality is typical for? Horseshoe kidney L obar dysmorphism Cross fused ectopia Renal hypertrophy Q45. This bone extension is the: Q45. This bone extension is the Sphenoidal wing Frontal bone Zygomatic arch Odontoid peg Crista Gali Q46 This benign tumour arising from the Dura is: Q46 This benign tumour arising from the Dura is Acoustic neuroma Glioma Ependymoma Meningioma Q47. This pelvic mass which contains hair, teeth and fat is a: Q47. This pelvic mass which contains hair, teeth and fat is a Dermoid Pleomorphic cyst Teratoma Hydaform mole Q48 . The two dots in the foramen magnum are?: Q48 . The two dots in the foramen magnum are? Carotid arteries Vertebral arteries Jugular veins Basilar arteries Q49. Which bone is the base of the “Ice cream cone”: Q49. Which bone is the base of the “Ice cream cone” Malleus Stapes Incus cochlear Q50. What is this abnormality?: Q50. What is this abnormality? Disc lesion- lateral recess Disc lesion – broad based bulge Disc lesion-exit foramen Hypertrophy of ligament flavum: The END Remember – write your name on the sheet to participate in winnings and door prizes