Net operating Income :
Net operating Income There is nothing as optimum capital structure
Overall cost of capital/capitalization rate remains constant, residual value of equity(s=v-b), Changes in cost of equity.
Explicit cost is the rate of interest of debt, implicit cost is increase in cost of equity due to increase in debt
As the use of debt as a cheaper source is neutralized by the implicit cost
M-M Approach-Basic proposition :
M-M Approach-Basic proposition Overall cost of capital and the value of the firm are independent of it’s capital structure
Cost of equity is equal to capitalization rate of pure equity plus premium for financial risk
Cut off rate for investment proposal is completely independent of the way investment are financed
M-M approach-Assumptions :
M-M approach-Assumptions Perfect Capital market
All investors have same perception about the of the firm’s EBIT
Business risk is equal in among all the firm within similar environment i.e. firms can be divided between equivalent risk class and homogenous risk class.
The dividend pay-our ratio is 100%
No corporate taxes
Arbitrage process :
Arbitrage process Implies buying a security in a market where price is low and selling where it is high.
Homemade leverages can replicate the firm’s capital structure, thereby causing investor’s to be indifferent to it.
Limitation of the process :
Limitation of the process Risk perception of corporate and personal leverage is different
Personal leverages are more inconvenient
If the borrowing cost vary, cost associated with personal and corporate borrowings will differ
Intuitional restrictions stands in the way of smooth operation of the process
Transaction cost
Assumption of no taxes can not be observed in real world
Example of the process :
Example of the process Two firms L & U identical in all respect except L has 10% Debentures of Rs. 500000, EBIT for the both firms is 1 00000 and equity capitalization rate of L is 16% and that of u is 12.5%
Suppose Mr. holds 10% shares in L, then his earnings will be 5000 and share of holdings will be 31250.
He sell his share in L and borrow additional 50000
His position in u will be investment cost 81250 total income(10156-5000)5156 instead of 5000 in U
Thus Mr. X will be better of by selling securities in l and buying in U, other investors will follow same direction and prices of u will increase and prices of L will decreased.
This will continue still it is possible to reduce investment outlay and get the same return
Beyond this point switching from L to U will not be identical